"When Qatar agreed to host the event, they implicitly agreed to accept the open, known, public laws of FIFA, which include a ban on discrimination"....if that be so then it should be mentioned in their bid which was accepted and so instead of going around shouldn't FIFA just inform all these groups or individuals raising their concerns that it is already agreed by Qatar as per their bid. What is the necessity of the statement "..and with FIFA’s help we are sure it will be possible to win over the Qataris so that they come into line with the rest of the world, including other countries in the Gulf and Middle East and change the law on homosexuality.". Shouldn't FIFA give that surety?
"When Qatar agreed to host the event, they implicitly agreed to accept the open, known, public laws of FIFA, which include a ban on discrimination"....if that be so then it should be mentioned in their bid which was accepted and so instead of going around shouldn't FIFA just inform all these groups or individuals raising their concerns that it is already agreed by Qatar as per their bid. What is the necessity of the statement "..and with FIFA’s help we are sure it will be possible to win over the Qataris so that they come into line with the rest of the world, including other countries in the Gulf and Middle East and change the law on homosexuality.". Shouldn't FIFA give that surety?