Either I fail to grasp this, or this is really hypocritical?
So when a Muslim man marries a Christian woman, he's marrying a believer from the book, and that's okay and sanctioned by the religion.
But should a Muslim woman want to marry a Christian man, then the Christian is viewed by scholars as being an idolater/non-believer and not suitable.
Wouldn't it be more equitable to say that NO Muslim, man or woman, can marry outside the religion??
Seems like a rather feeble argument.
Are Christians and Jews believers or non-believers? Are Christians and Jews idolaters or not?
If Christians and Jews are mushrik and kafir or whatever, then surely Muslim males shouldn't be allowed to marry them, right?
Or am I missing something fundamental here??
Either I fail to grasp this, or this is really hypocritical?
So when a Muslim man marries a Christian woman, he's marrying a believer from the book, and that's okay and sanctioned by the religion.
But should a Muslim woman want to marry a Christian man, then the Christian is viewed by scholars as being an idolater/non-believer and not suitable.
Wouldn't it be more equitable to say that NO Muslim, man or woman, can marry outside the religion??
Seems like a rather feeble argument.
Are Christians and Jews believers or non-believers?
Are Christians and Jews idolaters or not?
If Christians and Jews are mushrik and kafir or whatever, then surely Muslim males shouldn't be allowed to marry them, right?
Or am I missing something fundamental here??