kimd- do you mean to say that if an employee resigned from his work he will not be entitled to any gratuity benefit? can someone clarigy this... thanks...
Be careful about resigning- my previous employer refused to pay EOS benefits and the Labour Dept said I wasn't entitled to the full amount because I had resigned rather than just letting my contract expire.Check with Labour dept about procedure first.
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May your dreams take you travelling all through your life.
Then you were lucky. By law the gratuity payments only kick in after you've completed a full year. I know people who've left a few days short of a year and received nothing.
But re-reading your comment, I see say your 'contracts', which implies you worked several contracts back to back, in which case other articles of the labour law apply, regarding maximum time between contracts for it to be considered continual employment.
This is incorrect. According to the Labor Law you get a fraction of the three weeks minimum according to the duration of your employment. I.e.: half a year, 1 and a half weeks basic salary.
What rMs_000 stated is incorrect. It is 3 weeks wage for every year worked, pro-rata for part years.
See article 54 of the labour law;
Article (54)
In addition to any sums to which the worker is entitled to upon the expiry of his service, the employer shall pay the end of service gratuity to the worker who has completed employment of one year or more. This gratuity shall be agreed upon by the two parties, provided that it is not less than a three-week wage for every year of employment. The worker shall be entitled to gratuity for the fractions of the year in proportion to the duration of employment.
The last basic wage shall be the base for the calculation of the gratuity.
Does this applied to all? Or it depends on individual employee contract agreement? I'm wondering that we had no gratuity initially, and it has been introduced and effective only from 2005 onward while there are many staffs working since 1995. Beside as for us it is 21 days pay for 1-5 years, 6-10 1 month ad so on.
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with the new law in Qatar, 3 weeks of your salary each year. Unless you were offered 1 month of your salary from the beginning of your contract.
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kimd- do you mean to say that if an employee resigned from his work he will not be entitled to any gratuity benefit? can someone clarigy this... thanks...
Be careful about resigning- my previous employer refused to pay EOS benefits and the Labour Dept said I wasn't entitled to the full amount because I had resigned rather than just letting my contract expire.Check with Labour dept about procedure first.
>
May your dreams take you travelling all through your life.
Then you were lucky. By law the gratuity payments only kick in after you've completed a full year. I know people who've left a few days short of a year and received nothing.
But re-reading your comment, I see say your 'contracts', which implies you worked several contracts back to back, in which case other articles of the labour law apply, regarding maximum time between contracts for it to be considered continual employment.
"The worker shall be entitled to gratuity for the fractions of the year in proportion to the duration of employment."
My contracts all began in September and ended in June (10 months). I always got a gratuity according to the law (for the fraction of the year)!
Read Article 54 !
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tEaCh Me RuLeS, i'Ll TeAcH hOw To BrEaK iT ..
rMs..!!
MD - no, that bit is correct. You have to have worked a year before you're entitled to any gratuity. See Article 54 which I posted above.
rMs - no problem. Hopefully people will read past your comment and see mine!
Thanks for the right info !
In our co. its like that. and they are mentioning it as 'AS PER LABOUR LAW' !!
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tEaCh Me RuLeS, i'Ll TeAcH hOw To BrEaK iT ..
rMs..!!
"Less than 1 year
Nil"
This is incorrect. According to the Labor Law you get a fraction of the three weeks minimum according to the duration of your employment. I.e.: half a year, 1 and a half weeks basic salary.
What rMs_000 stated is incorrect. It is 3 weeks wage for every year worked, pro-rata for part years.
See article 54 of the labour law;
Article (54)
In addition to any sums to which the worker is entitled to upon the expiry of his service, the employer shall pay the end of service gratuity to the worker who has completed employment of one year or more. This gratuity shall be agreed upon by the two parties, provided that it is not less than a three-week wage for every year of employment. The worker shall be entitled to gratuity for the fractions of the year in proportion to the duration of employment.
The last basic wage shall be the base for the calculation of the gratuity.
Does this applied to all? Or it depends on individual employee contract agreement? I'm wondering that we had no gratuity initially, and it has been introduced and effective only from 2005 onward while there are many staffs working since 1995. Beside as for us it is 21 days pay for 1-5 years, 6-10 1 month ad so on.
Yes,,Included..!
~noms~
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"Before God we are all equally wise ' and equally foolish" - Albert Einstein
AM I ELIGIBLE FOR A LEAVE SALARY ALSO
AM I ELIGIBLE FOR A LEAVE SALARY ALSO
Thank you for your reply
*Entitlement in last drawn monthly basic salary
Less than 1 year
Nil
1-5 years
1 month for every year worked
5-10 Year
1.5 months for every year worked
More than 10 years
2 months for every year worked
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tEaCh Me RuLeS, i'Ll TeAcH hOw To BrEaK iT ..
rMs..!!