Do you have any proof from the primary sources that according to the definition of hijab, women's clothing, 1) must not have "bold designs" or 2) "resemble men's clothing."

Also, these provisions seem a bit vague for a scholarly fiqh ruling. For example, what constitutes 'resembling men's clothing'? If it is made of the same kind of material, then does it "resemble men's clothing?" And are we to understand by "men's clothing," khaleeji men's clothing, western men's clothing, pakistani men's clothing?

I think "covers everything but face and hands" is it. Everything else you posted is just khaleeji culture, which there is nothing necessarily wrong with. But it is not Shariah.

But again, I am always open to real evidence to the contrary.